One of my muslim brother accepted christianity claiming that qur’an directs towards bible. He sent me the following verses from qur’an and asked me to elaborate it.. I don’t have much knowledge. Can you please give me possible explanation? WHY DOES THE QURAN DIRECT MUSLIMS TO BIBLE? This is a question for the muslim posters mainly but others may join in. I have noticed that a lot of muslims posters seem to be of the opinion that the bible (hebrew and greek scriptures) are not to be viewed as the Word of God…that the text is compromised and untrustworthy. HOWEVER, I WOULD LIKE TO ASK WHAT THE OPINION IS ON THESE VERSES FROM THE QURAN WHICH ENCOURAGES THE USE OF THE BIBLE? Āl ‘Imrān [3]:3, 4, NJD: “He has revealed to you the BOOK with the truth, confirming the scriptures which preceded it; for He has already revealed the TORAH and the GOSPEL [Injīl in Arabic] for the guidance of men.” Al-Mā’idah [5]:46, 47: And in their footsteps, We sent ‘Iesa (Jesus), son of Maryam (Mary), confirming the TAURAT (Torah) that had come before him, and We gave him the INJEEL (GOSPEL), in which was guidance and light and confirmation of the Taurat (Torah) that had come before it, a guidance and an admonition for Al-Muttaqun (the pious) YŪNUS [10]:94.“IF THOU WERT IN DOUBT AS TO WHAT WE HAVE REVEALED UNTO THEE, THEN ASK THOSE WHO HAVE BEEN READING THE BOOK FROM BEFORE THEE.” It seems to me that the Quran is endorsing the use of the holy bible rather then trying to correct its teachings. I’d like to know where this idea that the bible needed correcting comes from? AND IF THE BIBLE WAS FALSIFIED LATER; AS MUSLIMS CLAIM, THEN WHEN IS LATER? It must have been before Mohammad’s time, otherwise he would not have come and declared that it had been changed… BUT THEN IF IT WAS BEFORE MOHAMMAD, WHY WOULD THE QURAN (WHICH WAS WRITTEN AFTER MOHAMMAD’S TIME) DIRECT PEOPLE TO THE BIBLE? THIS ALL SEEMS VERY CONTRADICTORY TO ME.