These verses are true and it indicates that the origin of the Torah and the Injeel is one and that it confirms with the Quran in proving the existence of Allah! This doesn’t mean that it was distorted and altered and tampered with! There many verses in the Quran that state that Islam abrogates all religions as the Quran abrogates all scriptures. Besides, which bible is he talking about because the Christians have many versions that differ with one another! So, is he referring to the Catholic version or the KJV? The funny thing is that no one on earth memorize the whole bible letter by letter and they don’t have the original manuscript in the language of Jesus, peace be upon him. Therefore, all what you see there is a translation of a translation of a translation without anyway of verifying that this is true! There is no comparison none whatsoever with the Quran that is in the native language of the still spoken Arabic by hundreds of millions do Arabs, memorized as it was revealed by tens of millions of Muslims without a single letter changed!

One of my muslim brother accepted christianity claiming that qur’an directs towards bible. He sent me the following verses from qur’an and asked me to elaborate it.. I don’t have much knowledge. Can you please give me possible explanation? WHY DOES THE QURAN DIRECT MUSLIMS TO BIBLE? This is a question for the muslim posters mainly but others may join in. I have noticed that a lot of muslims posters seem to be of the opinion that the bible (hebrew and greek scriptures) are not to be viewed as the Word of God…that the text is compromised and untrustworthy. HOWEVER, I WOULD LIKE TO ASK WHAT THE OPINION IS ON THESE VERSES FROM THE QURAN WHICH ENCOURAGES THE USE OF THE BIBLE? Āl ‘Imrān [3]:3, 4, NJD: “He has revealed to you the BOOK with the truth, confirming the scriptures which preceded it; for He has already revealed the TORAH and the GOSPEL [Injīl in Arabic] for the guidance of men.” Al-Mā’idah [5]:46, 47: And in their footsteps, We sent ‘Iesa (Jesus), son of Maryam (Mary), confirming the TAURAT (Torah) that had come before him, and We gave him the INJEEL (GOSPEL), in which was guidance and light and confirmation of the Taurat (Torah) that had come before it, a guidance and an admonition for Al-Muttaqun (the pious) YŪNUS [10]:94.“IF THOU WERT IN DOUBT AS TO WHAT WE HAVE REVEALED UNTO THEE, THEN ASK THOSE WHO HAVE BEEN READING THE BOOK FROM BEFORE THEE.” It seems to me that the Quran is endorsing the use of the holy bible rather then trying to correct its teachings. I’d like to know where this idea that the bible needed correcting comes from? AND IF THE BIBLE WAS FALSIFIED LATER; AS MUSLIMS CLAIM, THEN WHEN IS LATER? It must have been before Mohammad’s time, otherwise he would not have come and declared that it had been changed… BUT THEN IF IT WAS BEFORE MOHAMMAD, WHY WOULD THE QURAN (WHICH WAS WRITTEN AFTER MOHAMMAD’S TIME) DIRECT PEOPLE TO THE BIBLE? THIS ALL SEEMS VERY CONTRADICTORY TO ME.