The hand of a thief that must be cut as a prescribed punishment refers in Arabic to the whole arm and also to the palm of the hand! It is the sunnah that explains things to Us!

I do not know the Arabic language for me to judge whether that is what is meant or not. As in the case of the ayat about ‘beating’. beating is a strong word meaning to hurt a person repeatedly, often in a state of rage, without self-control, causing many bruises, yet its the word chosen in the translation of the Qur’an. We know from hadith that ‘beating’ is not allowed, but a light hitting that does not cause physical harm is okay. This is why I hope that someone who has a good grasp of Arabic can reply why the Quran uses this word?

Tafsir | August 23, 2015 2:38 am
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In Ibn Kathir’s tafsir of Surah Ikhlas, the ayat in English ‘And there is none comparable to Him.’It says that Mujahid said “This means He does not have a spouse”. Why in this ayat is it specifically related to Allah not having a spouse where as the ayat before according to the tafsir says that it means He does not have any child, parent or spouse? Any help appreciated.
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Dear Shaikh Can you please enlighten me with more explanation as I am little confused. This verse says that some of the verses are taken away or if forgotten than We replace it with better verses. Allah is all knowing so my question why He send some instructions and latter it is changed? It may be my misunderstanding about meaning.