ANSWER:

You don’t have to give him any money, it’s his responsibility to pay for the visa to bring you to him.

QUESTION: I’m Indian married to my husband uk as for my next visa application my husband needs money and other side I got money from my share Bcz of my parents property sold , now my husband is saying He can use that money for visa is it permissible? Can He use my money? Or doest it have to pay me back when He have money?

Fiqh of Marriage | November 16, 2024 1:04 pm
Previous

QUESTION: Is wife responsible to wake husband for fajar?
Next

QUESTION: I am about to get married but the person I am getting married to have kept jins at home and talks to them and claim that this is as remedy for black marriage on his mother. Is it permissible?