My grandfather has died has left some inheritance. The family has decided and agreed upon to give more wealth to the poor recipients. While wealthy recipients have shown consent to this idea. Is it permissible? Shouldn’t they first distribute the wealth according to Shariah and then let the wealthy recipients give their share to the poor ones? Is consent of recipient enough for such distribution?
My grandfather has died has left some inheritance. The family has decided and agreed upon to give more wealth to the poor recipients. While wealthy recipients have shown consent to this idea. Is it permissible? Shouldn’t they first distribute the wealth according to Shariah and then let the wealthy recipients give their share to the poor ones? Is consent of recipient enough for such distribution?
02Jul
They must first distribute it according to sharia and later on, they can give whatever they want to others.
My grandfather has died has left some inheritance. The family has decided and agreed upon to give more wealth to the poor recipients. While wealthy recipients have shown consent to this idea. Is it permissible? Shouldn’t they first distribute the wealth according to Shariah and then let the wealthy recipients give their share to the poor ones? Is consent of recipient enough for such distribution?